Here is a helpful article from Gregory Koukl at "Stand to Reason." The focus of the article is on what’s called the problem of “moral grounding.”
Koukl begins with the classic objection to the faith, the problem of evil. He then uses the problem of moral grounding to indirectly defuse the challenge by pointing out that for the problem of evil to be real, evil must be real and so a violation of a real good. He then states the obvious, that relativists can’t raise the objection from evil honestly, since real and objective evil can’t exist in a relativistic framework.
At this point, Koukl presents a question.
“The grounding question is: Given that there is real evil and good, as well, why is the world the way it is? What properly accounts for this moral feature of the world?”
Granted, Koukl is a rationalist, epistemologically speaking. However, even a green-winged presuppositionalist will recognize the transcendental nature of the question Koukl sets forth. He goes on to argue that morality is deontological; that is, morals have an obligatory nature. Morals are not descriptive but prescriptive; they don’t tell us how things are but how they ought to be. Morals have an ought-ness about them.
Finally, Koukl demonstrates that obligation assumes personality. Obligation is something that exists between persons. Although I need to prune my Azaleas for spring, I don’t feel any obligation to them to do it for them. They are impersonal entities and impersonals don’t prescribe what persons ought to do. Morals therefore could only have their “grounding” in a personal moral-maker to whom we are obligated.
Koukl is quite apt with illustrations, and doesn’t let us down in this article. The illustration serves to show the a priority of morality, thus concluding that morals have their “grounding” in the personal, moral-maker God of Christian theism.
While this is a good article, I’m not commending it for what it’s worth in and of itself. I’d have you read the article and then consider the auxiliary application I’m going to suggest.
Yesterday I posted Robert Reymond’s attempt at defining the presuppositional apologetic method. Today I thought I’d use Koukl’s article as a springboard to helping those unacquainted with presuppositionalism grasp it better.
Christians who are the slightest bit self-conscious in their apologetic practice are generally accustom to denying unbelievers any grounding for morality, since only Yahweh, the holy Law-Giver, alone has the authority to tell us what is right and wrong. This is nothing especially new; Koukl is sort of playing Capt. Obvious in this way.
A helpful step in grasping what distinguishes presuppositionalism from traditional methods is that the presuppositional apologete extends this denial of “grounding” from the unbeliever to every sphere of human experience, especially the area of epistemology.
Epistemology is the study of how we know what we know, the methods and extent of our knowing, et cetera. My favorite definition is (roughly stated) “When asked how you know what you know, then take away the option of answering, ‘I just do,’ and what is left is epistemology.”
The presuppositional challenge to unbelief is that unless the God of Christian theism is presupposed at the beginning, knowledge of anything is impossible. Christ, the Word of God, endowing light and speaking with absolute and Self-attesting authority alone provides the necessary “grounding” for the integration and unity of knowledge necessary for human knowledge to happen at all. It is an epistemological axiom that unless everything is known by Someone, nothing can be known by anyone. Exhaustive knowledge must reside Somewhere in order for any knowledge to reside elsewhere. (I capitalize “Someone” and “Somewhere” in the preceding sentences because in Whomever or Wherever all knowledge resides, that one or place deserves this respect!)
The traditional apologetic method Evangelicals are so used to ironically operates on a Roman Catholic understanding of anthropology and the fall of man. The traditional apologetic operates on the assumption that the fall had little or no effect on man’s reasoning ability; sin is a moral rather than epistemological issue, or so it’s presumed. This, however, cannot stand against either the biblical data, human experience, or historic Protestant theology. That the fall was primarily an epistemological laps is sufficient to prove the Romish doctrine wrong.
Tomorrow I’ll post what I believe is a positive vindication of these claims. In the mean time, ponder this analogy. Presuppositionalism is (in part) just an extension of Koukl’s argument in his “moral grounding” article. Presuppositionalism argues that God speaking in the Word of God is the transcendentally necessary ontological “grounding” for knowledge. We argue that human reason, the laws of logic, induction, et cetera depend upon humans being created in God’s image; the biblical God, who is the comprehensively rational One. Moreover, since the all the world reflects his glory, majesty and “eternal power and Godhead,” the world has a rational structure which corresponds with not only God’s Mind, but man’s as well. Therefore, God is the necessary ontological “grounding” of epistemology, from the impossibility of all contrary epistemological options.
This illustration, from the moral argument to the epistemological argument, may help some grasp the distinctives of a presuppositional apologetic.
Remove not the ancient landmark, which thy fathers have set. –Proverbs 22:28
I call upon You, Lord, God of Abraham and God of Isaac and God of Jacob and Israel, You who are the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the God who, through the abundance of your mercy, was well-pleased towards us so that we may know You, who made heaven and earth, who rules over all, You who are the one and the true God, above whom there is no other God; You who, by our Lord Jesus Christ gave us the gift of the Holy Spirit, give to every one who reads this writing to know You, that You alone are God, to be strengthened in You, and to avoid every heretical and godless and impious teaching.
St Irenaeus of Lyons, Against the Heresies 3:6:4
Monday, January 18, 2010
GRASPING PRESUPPOSITIONALISM
Labels:
Apologetics,
Epistemology,
Ethics,
Evidentialism,
Evil,
Koukl,
Presuppositionalism,
Worldview
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Great post.
ReplyDelete"It is an epistemological axiom that unless everything is known by Someone, nothing can be known by anyone. Exhaustive knowledge must reside Somewhere in order for any knowledge to reside elsewhere."
How would you go about proving this?
Well, Steve, that’s an interesting question. To answer it, I guess I’d first have to ask a question in return: What standard of proof would you recommend for proving an axiomatic proposition? Until I hear back on that, I can offer a couple of ideas.
ReplyDeleteFirst, I suppose it could be answered somewhat negatively by demonstrating the impossibility of the contrary. Let’s say, for argument’s sake, that comprehensive knowledge in fact does not exist anywhere or in anyone (of course, one would have to have the thing in question to deny it!)—no absolute truth, no unification of the data or objects of knowledge, no universals, no integration, no Mind. Once this is taken for granted, how would we arrive at knowledge of anything? In other words, I believe the burden lies on the position that would deny it.
As Van Til said, “It is true that there must be comprehensive knowledge somewhere if there is to be any true knowledge anywhere but this comprehensive knowledge need not and cannot be in us; it must be in God” (Defense, 41).
For me, the statement assumes that all things are related, and if all things are related, then it follows that true knowledge of any one fact (or state of affairs) would require knowing all other relations to that fact, and every relation of those facts, and every relation of those facts... and so on...until we’ve arrived at an exhaustive account of every fact and every relation between all facts. It seems to me that the only way to avoid this conclusion would be to deny that the facts (or state of affairs, or objects of knowledge) are finally related; and if that is premised, then what would follow?!?
This is too abstract. I’ll illustrated what I mean.
Everyone I’ve talked to about Miniature Pinschers believe that they are a dwarfed strain of Doberman Pinscher. They think they “know” this; however, since you can’t know that which is false, they don’t know it. Their problem lies in their ignorance of the various genetic/historical relations between the two breeds. The only clear link between the two is their shared heritage in the (now extinct) Black and Tan German Pinscher (similar to the Manchester Terrier). Actually, the Min Pin is probably a couple centuries older than the Doberman. Peoples’ false beliefs about the Min Pin, then, stems from their ignorance of the relationship of the facts concerning the breed.
The positive answer is simple, however. The God of the Bible is omniscient; his knowledge is exhaustive, Self-sufficient, Self-contained, and analytical (of both himself and his creation). He created man in his own image, though finite; man is analogically rational as God is rational. With God as the final reference point, by means of his revelation to man (in Christ, nature and Scripture), man may have true knowledge about God, the world and himself. The knowledge that man is capable of is finite but can be true nonetheless, as far as this dependant sub-set of God’s knowledge is understood as a re-interpretation of God’s pre-interpretation of the facts. Or, man having true knowledge swings on God’s exhaustive knowledge, his revealing parts of that knowledge, and man in turn “thinking God’s thoughts after him.” If we do not begin with God, then true knowledge is precluded.
I don’t know if this helped or confused things further. I’m still open to the idea for a criterion of proof that would suffice to judge axioms.
Thanks, Kevin. I appreciate the thoughtfulness and time that you put into your response.
ReplyDeleteI want to tease this out a bit further. Obviously, we are on the same page. But just for fun, let's dialog a bit further.
You said, "Let’s say, for argument’s sake, that comprehensive knowledge in fact does not exist anywhere or in anyone (of course, one would have to have the thing in question to deny it!)—no absolute truth, no unification of the data or objects of knowledge, no universals, no integration, no Mind."
Why must it follow from the idea that there is no comprehensive knowledge to the conclusion that there is no absolute truth, no unification of data or or objects of knowledge, no universals, and no integration? Why couldn't there be non-comprehensive knowledge of absolute truth?
In a possible answer to that question, you said, "For me, the statement assumes that all things are related, and if all things are related, then it follows that true knowledge of any one fact (or state of affairs) would require knowing all other relations to that fact..."
This might answer my previous question. However, in your last paragraph you say that man may have true knowledge of God by way of revelation (a means by which human beings obtain knowledge). But how can this be true if "true knowledge of any one fact requires knowing all other relation to that fact?" The logical implication would seem to be that human beings cannot have true knowledge of anything since they do not have comprehensive knowledge.
Oh Steve, you know how much I’d appreciate some teasing out.
ReplyDeleteFirst, to return to my original reply, I’d still like to hear an answer to the challenge of what standard or criterion we might use to test the truth of the statement: Without comprehensive knowledge somewhere, there can be no true knowledge anywhere. This, again, is prime facie axiomatic. If that is so, then I believe that the burden of proof lies with its challenger.
That an axiom may be challenged in nowise displaces its epistemic necessity. As you know, even the law of non-contradiction seems to some to be a reasonable target for attack. However, that there are entire schools, e.g., dialetheism, paraconsistent logic, and trivialism, who believe that they have assailed the absolutivity of truth, doesn’t put the laws that govern our thought on the ropes.
Again, how would you suggest we judge this claim. It seems we would first have to have comprehensive knowledge in order to deny its reality; and if that were the case, the whole question becomes absurd.
Secondly, you ask, “Why must it follow from the idea that there is no comprehensive knowledge to the conclusion that there is no absolute truth, no unification of data or objects of knowledge, no universals, and no integration? Why couldn't there be non-comprehensive knowledge of absolute truth?” I’ll address these in reverse order.
My answer to the latter question is that there is non-comprehensive knowledge of absolute truth. I’m sure that you sense that I’ve contradicted myself by way of how I must answer the former question. The reason that this does not contradict the former is because of a necessary distinction that I think you’re failing to make.
The later question, again, is affirmed in the fact that we creatures, who are incapable of comprehensive knowledge, do have knowledge of absolute truth. Take the proposition “God cannot lie.” As finite knowers, we can know this truth, which is absolute; we know it propositionally; we know it intuitively; we know it historically, realized through God’s executing history according to his reveal plan of redemption, and by grace, we can know it experimentally, enjoying God’s promises in the gospel materialized in our lives. Thus, we can know absolute truth without knowing it comprehensively.
Here we must make the distinction: The latter question concerns epistemology; the former question is one of metaphysics. The latter asks can absolute truth be known; the former, does it exist.
With this distinction made, I think I can escape the contradiction, still maintaining that absolutes, universals, and the unification of knowledge assumes the existence of comprehensive knowledge as a precondition for any knowledge at all. Take absolutes, for example. If truth is the object of knowledge, and truth resides in a mind, then absolute truth would require an absolute mind. This absolute mind would have to posses an exhaustive accounting of all the facts, which are interrelated with the object-truth in question. Thereby, in order for absolute truth to be a real existent, a comprehensive knowledge of that truth must take up residency in an absolute mind. If such a mind is precluded, therefore, absolute truth would not exist, and hence could not be known.
Thirdly, your final remarks:
Having just come off that Van Til citation, I was assuming too much. At that point, though, I simply meant the term in principle. In other words, “true knowledge” (anywhere, for anyone)...”requires” (depends upon, has for its precondition)...an “exhaustive account” of all relations between facts, and so comprehensive knowledge: If true knowledge is possible, comprehensive knowledge is necessary.
The bottom line: The triune God has comprehensive knowledge; God teaches man knowledge (Ps 94:10); therefore, all human knowledge is dependant upon God’s comprehensive knowledge (Ps 36:9).
First, to your original question, "What standard or criterion we might use to test the truth of the statement: Without comprehensive knowledge somewhere, there can be no true knowledge anywhere?" This was actually my question to you. When I say, how might you prove this statement, I'm implicitly asking you about the standard to which you would appeal in order to validate the claim. If you answer is that there is no higher standard or basis for your belief, then I suppose that's your answer. But given what I know about your ultimate standard, it would seem you have some explaining to do. In other words, how do you get from Scripture to this axiom?
ReplyDeleteSecondly, I don't find the metaphysical/epistemological distinction helpful. My question is epistemological. Does the existence of knowledge require the existence of omniscience?
Now, you seem to answer this in your final paragraph--the bottom line. "The triune God has comprehensive knowledge; God teaches man knowledge (Ps 94:10); therefore, all human knowledge is dependant upon God’s comprehensive knowledge (Ps 36:9)."
Nice work. :)